Hi ScarZ,
Thank you for posting this information. Does any of David Flynn's material give any idea to the time-frames for the early events or historical figures that his research indicated?
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Fri Oct 19, 2012 12:29 pm by Admin
ScaRZ as well as Cyrellys answered these things, in the same ways I understand.mdonnall2002 wrote:
And Why would HE need to enlist 'them' - in aiding Him - to "confuse the tongues of man" and divide us? In all places at all times with unlimited power? A God with an army of 'them'?
Do you believe - God is endless, timeless, vastness, with unlimited power, can do all and see all, and can be in a thousand locations at once? Answer from the heart.
Yes, scripture shows us God uses many. God issues orders to follow, and God has servants and messengers - the Kingdom of God.
Jake Reason wrote:YHWH/God can not sin. There is no sin in God. It's an oxymoron.
However it is possible for some Elohim to sin. And so too Angels can sin. The price is separation. And both have done it.
Genesis 6:2 - Elohim
I don't think you're understanding my answer. You need to place yourself in that time, walking a mile in their moccasins.mdonnall2002 wrote:Jake/All:
With all due respect, the dichotomy is still before us.
We know that those times were barbaric and it was common practice to stone as punishment, but you fall short in answering the question. I appreciate the illustrations you tendered in place of a direct answer to the question I posed.
So you are thinking that it doesn't matter what life was like in their time, because "the Lord" ordered a contradiction. It has nothing to do with the people, this is a Lord question. Is this your view?
Did the Lord order man to kill another as to punish him for collecting sticks on the Sabbath, thereby forcing Moses and the congregation to break a Holy commandment, thou shall not kill, upon which the Lord issued upon the stone tablets by His own hand?
What do you mean by "the Lord"?
For the sake of clarity – A simple yes or no would suffice to the following questions.
Did the Lords hand command – “thou shall not kill” to man?
Did the Lord command Moses and the men to stone a man to death - after He gave the commandment not to kill?
Firstly, I did not claim that "the Lord" could not sin. I wrote that YHWH can not sin. And yes it is an oxymoron, as per the definition of 'sin'.
You claim it is oxymoronic to assume that the Lord could not sin, against His own will (while knowing both Good and evil) but in the few short verses I previously quoted, he apparently does so. How do you rationalize this?
No! Moses gave the commandment and they all agreed it to be "the Lord's" will.
The Lord gave a command to the congregation - to kill by stoning as the ink from the hand of the Lord was still wet upon the Ten Commandments!
Digress: Did "the Lord" tell Abraham to take his boy Isaac up a mountain and kill him?
Talk about a glaring contradiction!? Hurry up and turn the page!? Pretend we didn’t see that?!
Well hopefully what I've shared here will help you to begin to understand.
Using the greater narrative of the future Christ (timeline) in trying to rationalize the moment which Moses was forced to kill does this discussion no justice.
mdonnall2002 wrote:
In knowing both good and evil – Can the LORD God, our creator(s), sin - against His own Will?
mdonnall2002 wrote:
In knowing both good and evil – does not man sin?
In knowing both good and evil – have not angels sinned?
I don't think you're understanding my answer. You need to place yourself in that time, walking a mile in their moccasins.
Why did they pick stoning as the punishment? Why not a quick knife to the throat? Or hang them? Or banish them from the tribe into the wilderness? Why did they pick stoning? What was their thinking for that specific form of capital punishment?
We need to fully grasp that, before we can even understand why they had a free conscience with picking up stones and throwing them at their own tribesman, their own friends, or brothers, sisters, uncles, aunts, even their own adult children or parents.
How could they justify this behavior? We know they did justify it as rational, otherwise they wouldn't have been able to do it.
If we can't empathize with them in these regards, we can not begin to understand the apparent dichotomies.
So you are thinking that it doesn't matter what life was like in their time, because "the Lord" ordered a contradiction. It has nothing to do with the people, this is a Lord question. Is this your view?
What do you mean by "the Lord"?
You are asking questions that require the application of deep wisdom. These can not be understood with 'black/white' or 'yes/no' reasoning. I have answered you in my post above. It may take awhile to fully understand, but the answers are found there.
Firstly, I did not claim that "the Lord" could not sin. I wrote that YHWH can not sin. And yes it is an oxymoron, as per the definition of 'sin'.
No. I was literally trying to explain to you something you do not understand. And by your reply here, I now know why. I'll get to that in this postmdonnall2002 wrote:NOTE:
What I am attempting here is to get you to - 'stick to the facts, Jack'.
What you wish to do is, embellish within creative hyperbole to avoid the giving the obvious answer.
Yes. And do you know there are orthodox Jewish Rabbi's today that are more well studied in the new testament than most Christians no less, Yet still remain totally reverent to God, while rejecting 'Jesus' as both a Messiah, or a Christ?I don't have to remind you that it was also the men of 'great wisdom' that slew the Son of Man.
There is no theological question here. Nor is there any question about an Old Testament God compared to a New Testament God.
What I also do not ‘get’ is this: Biblical dichotomies that exist – apparently require us to use a ‘greater wisdom’ (in you own words) yet, when they do not exist we are to take them as factual and literal events. Just a Creature of convenience?
I would not say that this is a Lord’s question. I believe it is a valid theological question, I pose.
By the Lord, I mean: “And all the congregation brought him without the camp, and stoned him with stones, and he died; as the LORD commanded Moses.
Jake, what is so hard about admitting – the Lord ordered the death of a man by the men He Commanded – Thou shall no kill? It’s plain as day. It does not require a greater awareness to admit this verse basically proclaims: I am the Lord, I am pissed, I will have my vengeance. Let’s be brutally honest, this is the Old Testament.
You have fallen into the same trap as Charles Templeton. If you do not know who he is, please read the full link article. If you do not overcome this "trap", then you are on your way to giving up your faith. I'm being serious.
And that is the intent of this discussion, Jake. Who is ‘the Lord’ in this verse, in your opinion? Is this the same Lord that put his hand to the stones? Is this the Elohim? Is this the Father of Creation?
Firstly, I did not claim that "the Lord" could not sin. I wrote that YHWH can not sin. And yes it is an oxymoron, as per the definition of 'sin'.
O.K. I will concede to this for now, but in my heart I am asking, “If One be your creator and destroys you – what would we deem this be?” Let us all be thankful for the New Testament, for my sake.
And this is why my heart is moved to defend.mdonnall2002 wrote:
If by losing a religion, men cannot defend, I should draw closer to Him (The Creative Source) - the bitter road was worth the walk as 'Mysterious Ways' has always been the way, at least for me.
Jake Reason wrote:
And so what about the implied title - "Debunked"?
I find this somewhat spurious.
Hmmm, politically apropos.mdonnall2002 wrote:For educational purposes only:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=6udew9axmdM
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